Correct Answer :
Solution :
` block clearly.
The correct answer is:
Step-by-step Explanation:
Step 1: Convert cot−1 to tan−1
for any positive value of .
Step 2: Manipulate the algebraic expression inside tan−1
Step 3: Apply the subtraction formula for inverse tangent
Letting and , we obtain:
Step 4: Substitute back into the definite integral
By the linearity of integrals, this splits into:
This matches the first option.
Recall the inverse trigonometric identity:
Since for all , we can rewrite the integrand as:
We can rewrite the denominator as .
Notice that the numerator can be expressed as the difference .
Therefore, the argument becomes:
Using the standard identity:
Replacing the integrand in the given integral, we get:
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