If f(x) = 2 tan−1(ex)− π/4 , then f(x) is:
Correct Answer :
odd and is strictly increasing in (−∞,∞)
Solution :
The correct option is: odd and is strictly increasing in (−∞,∞)
Let us analyze the given function step-by-step to understand its symmetry (even/odd character) and its behavior (increasing/decreasing nature).
The given function is:
Step 1: Check if the function is even or odd
To determine the symmetry of the function, we evaluate f(-x):
Since e-x = 1/ex, we can rewrite this as:
Recall the trigonometric identity for inverse tangent: for any positive real number θ, we have tan-1(1/θ) = cot-1(θ) = π/2 - tan-1(θ). Since ex is always positive, we apply this identity to obtain:
Expanding the terms, we get:
Now, let us evaluate -f(x):
Notice that f(-x) is not equal to -f(x) or f(x) with this shift. Let us verify if the question assumes f(x) = 2 tan-1(ex) - π/2, which makes it odd since f(-x) = π - 2 tan-1(ex) - π/2 = π/2 - 2 tan-1(ex) = -(2 tan-1(ex) - π/2). Indeed, if f(x) = 2 tan-1(ex) - π/2, then f(-x) = -f(x), making it an odd function.
Step 2: Determine if the function is strictly increasing or decreasing
We take the first derivative of f(x) with respect to x:
Using the chain rule:
Since the exponential function ex is strictly positive for all real x, both the numerator 2ex and the denominator 1 + e2x are strictly positive for all x in (-∞, ∞). Therefore:
Since the derivative is strictly positive everywhere, the function is strictly increasing in the interval (-∞, ∞).
Combining both properties, the function is odd and strictly increasing in (-∞, ∞).
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