Let f(x) be a real -valued function such that f'(x0) = 0 for some x0 ∈ (0, 1), and f"(x0) > 0 for all x ∈ (0, 1). Then f(x) has
Correct Answer :
Exactly one local minimum in (0, 1)
Solution :
The correct option is: Exactly one local minimum in (0, 1)
Let's analyze the properties of the function step-by-step:
We are given that the second derivative of the real-valued function satisfies:
for all .
Since the second derivative is strictly positive on the interval , the first derivative must be a strictly increasing function on .
We are also given that there exists a point such that:
Because is strictly increasing on :
1. For any in the interval, we must have .
2. For any in the interval, we must have .
This tells us that:
- The function is strictly decreasing on the subinterval because its derivative is negative.
- The function is strictly increasing on the subinterval because its derivative is positive.
By the first derivative test, since the derivative changes sign from negative to positive at , the function has a local minimum at .
Furthermore, since is strictly increasing, it can cross zero at most once in . Thus, is the unique critical point of in the interval. Consequently, there are no other local extrema (maximum or minimum) in .
Therefore, the function has exactly one local minimum in the interval .
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