Let p1 and p2 denote two arbitrary prime numbers. Which one of the following statements is correct for all values of p1 and p2?
Correct Answer :
p1p2 is not a prime number.
Solution :
The correct option is: p1p2 is not a prime number.
Let us analyze why this statement is always correct for any two arbitrary prime numbers p1 and p2, and why the other options are not always true.
1. Understanding Prime Numbers:
A prime number is a positive integer greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.
2. Analyzing the Correct Option (p1p2 is not a prime number):
Let be the product of the two prime numbers.
Since p1 and p2 are prime numbers, we have and .
Thus, the product will have at least the following distinct positive divisors:
1, p1, p2, and p1p2.
Since , the factor p1 is strictly greater than 1 and strictly less than the product p1p2.
Therefore, the product p1p2 has a divisor other than 1 and itself (specifically, it is divisible by both p1 and p2).
By definition, any integer greater than 1 that has divisors other than 1 and itself is a composite number, not a prime number.
Hence, p1p2 is not a prime number is always true for all prime numbers p1 and p2.
3. Why the other options are incorrect (Counterexamples):
Let us test the other statements with specific values of p1 and p2 to show they do not hold in all cases:
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