Let f : [0, π/2] → [0, 1] be the function defined by f(x) = sin2 x and let g : [0, π/2] → [0, ∞) be the function defined by
Correct Answer :
Solution :
The correct answer is 0.
Step 1: Understand the given integral expression
We are given the functions:
We need to find the value of the integral expression:
Step 2: Combine the integrals
By factoring out , we can express as a single integral:
Substitute into the integrand:
Thus, the integral becomes:
Step 3: Apply King's Property of Definite Integrals
Using King's property, , where :
First, evaluate :
Next, evaluate :
So, applying the substitution gives:
Step 4: Add the two expressions for I
Adding both forms of together:
Therefore, the value of the given expression is 0.
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