Question Details

Let f : [0, π/2] → [0, 1] be the function defined by f(x) = sin2 x and let g : [0, π/2] → [0, ∞) be the function defined by

g ( x ) = π x 2 x 2


The value of   2 0 π 2 f ( x ) g ( x ) d x 0 π 2 g ( x ) d x  is _____

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Correct Answer :

0

Solution :

The correct answer is 0.

Step 1: Understand the given integral expression

We are given the functions:

f(x)=sin2x

g(x)=πx2-x2

We need to find the value of the integral expression:

I=20π2f(x)g(x)dx-0π2g(x)dx


Step 2: Combine the integrals

By factoring out g(x), we can express I as a single integral:

I=0π2(2f(x)-1)g(x)dx

Substitute f(x)=sin2x into the integrand:

2f(x)-1=2sin2x-1=-cos(2x)

Thus, the integral becomes:

I=0π2-cos(2x)g(x)dx


Step 3: Apply King's Property of Definite Integrals

Using King's property, 0ah(x)dx=0ah(a-x)dx, where a=π2:

First, evaluate gπ2-x:

gπ2-x=π2π2-x-π2-x2

=π24-πx2-π24-πx+x2

=πx2-x2=g(x)

Next, evaluate -cos2π2-x:

-cos(π-2x)=-(-cos(2x))=cos(2x)

So, applying the substitution xπ2-x gives:

I=0π2cos(2x)g(x)dx


Step 4: Add the two expressions for I

Adding both forms of I together:

2I=0π2(-cos(2x)+cos(2x))g(x)dx

2I=0π20·g(x)dx=0

I=0

Therefore, the value of the given expression is 0.

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