Which one of the options given is the inverse Laplace transform of 1/ (π 3βπ )? π’(π‘) denotes the unit-step function.
Correct Answer :
Solution :
The correct answer is:
Step-by-step Explanation:
We are given the Laplace transform function:
First, factor the denominator completely:
Next, express the function using partial fraction decomposition:
We can solve for the coefficients , , and using the residue method:
To find , multiply the equation by and evaluate at :
To find , multiply the equation by and evaluate at :
To find , multiply the equation by and evaluate at :
Substituting the values of , , and back into the decomposition yields:
Now, apply the inverse Laplace transform to each term using the standard transform pairs:
and
This gives:
Factoring out the unit-step function results in the final solution:
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